Why Freud believes that child sexual abuse is just another figment of imagination?
Freud himself abandoned his own ‘seduction theory’ regarding sexual-child abuse because he came to the conclusion that these types of experiences were based on ones imagination of the experiences rather than ones real experience. However he admitted that from observing his child patients that it was likely that their experiences of abuse were more based on a real experience of abuse than a fictionalized and imaginated version. Overall based on this inconsistency which are paramount in most of Freud’s theories, I think he was confused over what he thought was real and imaginatory. Considering he wrote Interpretation of Dreams in attempt to unlock and address the unconscious in more accessible way, in which afterwards he was ostracized by many from even from the psychoanalytic community by producing it. In addition, to considering his idea that women have inner desire to be raped when it comes to sexual pleasure. Now who agrees with Freud’s proposition? Does it also mean accordingly that women when they becomes mother’s they will become so maternally attached to their sons that they will fixate over them (known as the Oedipus-Complex that it interferes with mother and son relationships). Then there’s his explanation towards the individual’s experience of ‘neurosis’ that he believed was always related to ones imagination rather than a reality. In which he drew many of his ideas from interactions with his patients, in particular his female patients. Thus, this is why many of Freudian theories aren’t applied by health professional and deemed more applicable to the study of art and literacy. Hence because his ideas are so unreliable and unstable like as he projected himself.
